1. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider
the following statements:
1. They
can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body
2. They
can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human
body.
3. They
can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon
nanotubes are biodegradable
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
2. Consider the following activities:
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales
for DNA analysis.
At the present level of technology, which of the
above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
3. The experiment will employ a trio of
spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has
sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The
experiment in question refers to
a. Voyager – 2
b. New Horizon
c. LISA pathfinder
d. Evolved LISA
4. Consider the following statements:
1. Genetic
changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a
prospective parent.
2. A
person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human
induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
5. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal
conjugate vaccines in India?
1. These
vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2.
Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug – resistant
bacteria can be reduced.
3. These
vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
6. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure”
is used in the context of
a. Digital security infrastructure
b. Food security infrastructure
c. Health care and education infrastructure
d. Telecommunication and transportation
infrastructure.
7. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the general differences between plant and animal cells?
1. Plant
cells have cellulose cell walls and while animals do not
2. Plant
cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do
3. Mature plant cells has one large vacuole
whilst animal cell has many small vacuoles.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
8. Which of the following are the reasons/
factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
1.
Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco
smoke
3. Wood
burning
4. Using
varnished wooden furniture
5. Using
products made of polyurethane.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
9. If another global financial crisis happens in
the near future, which of the following actions/ policies are most likely to
give some immunity to India?
1. Not
depending on short – term foreign borrowings
2. Opening
up to more foreign banks
3.
Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
10. If you withdraw Rs.1,00,000 in cash from your
Demand deposit account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money
supply in the economy will be
a. to reduce it by Rs.1,00,000
b. to increase it by Rs.1,00,000
c. to increase it by more than Rs.1,00,000
d. to leave it unchanged
11. With reference to the cultural history of
India which one of the following is the correct description of the term
“Paramitas”?
a. The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in
aphoristic (Sutra) style.
b. Philosophical schools that did not accept the
authority of vedas.
c. Perfections whose attainment led to the
Bodhisattva path
d. Powerful merchant guilds of early medieval
south India.
12. In the context of Indian History, the
Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around
1. women’s
right to gain education
2. age of
consent
3.
restitution of conjugal rights
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
13. Indigo cultivation in India declined by the
beginning of the 20th century because of
a. Peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct
of planters
b. its unprofitability in the world market
because of new inventions
c. national leaders opposition to the cultivation
of Indigo
d. Government control over the planters
14. Wellesley established the Fort William
College at Calcutta because
a. he was asked by the board of directors at
London to do so
b. he wanted to revive interest in Oriental
learning in India
c. he wanted to provide William carey and his
association with employment
d. he wanted to train British civilians for
administrative purpose
15. With reference to history of India, “Ulgulan”
or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?
a. The revolt of 1857
b. The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
c. The indigo revolt of 1859-60
d. Birs munda revolt of 1899-1900
16. With reference to the scholars/literateurs of
ancient India, consider the following statements:
1. Panini
is associated with Pushyamitra shunga
2.
Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana
3.
kalidasa is associated with Chadragupta – II
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
17. In the context of recent advances in human
reproductive technology, “pronuclear Transfer” is used for
a. Fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor
sperm
b. Genetic modification of sperm producing cells
c. development of stem cells into functional
embryos
d. Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in
offspring
18. With the present state of development,
Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
1. Bring
down electricity consumption in industrial units
2. Create
meaningful short stories and songs
3. Disease
diagnosis
4. Text –
to- speech conversion
5.
Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
19. With reference to Visible light communication
(VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
1. VLC
uses electromagnetic spectrum of wavelengths 375 to 780 nm
2. VLC is
known as long range optical wireless communication
3. VLC can
transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth
4. VLC has
no electromagnetic interference
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
20. With reference to block chain technology,
consider the following statements:
1. It is a
public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls
2. The
structure and design of block chain is such that all the data in it are about crypto
currency only
3.
Applications that depend on basic features of block chain can be developed
without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
21. A parliamentary system of Government is one
in which
a. all political parties in the parliament are
represented in the Government
b. the government is responsible to the
parliament and can be removed by it
c. the government is elected by the people and
can be removed by them
d. the government is chosen by the parliament but
cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term
22. Which part of the constitution of India
declares the ideal of welfare state?
a. Directive principles of state policy
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Preamble
d. Seventh Schedule
23. Consider the following statements:
1. The
constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy
2. The
constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial Review’ to safeguard the citizens
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
24. One common agreement between Gandhism and
Marxism is
a. the final goal of a stateless society
b. class struggle
c. abolition of private property
d. economic determinism
25. In the context of India, which one of the
following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
a. An agency for widening the scope of
parliamentary democracy
b. An agency for strengthening the structure of
federalism
c. An agency for facilitating political stability
and economic growth
d. An agency for the implementation of public
policy
26. The preamble of the constitution of India is
a. a part of the constitution but has no legal
effect
b. not a part of the constitution and has no
legal effect
c. a part of the constitution and has same legal
effect as any other part
d. a part of the constitution but has no legal
effect independently of other parts
27. “Gold Tranche” (Reverse Tranche) refers to
a. a loan system of the world bank
b. one of the operations of a central bank
c. a credit system granted by WTO to its members
d. a credit system granted by IMF to its members
28. With reference to the provisions contained in
Part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. They
shall be enforceable by courts
2. They
shall not be enforceable by any court
3. The
principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the
state
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
29. Consider the following statements:
1.
According to the constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be
made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the
legislature of that state
2.
According to the Representation of people act, 1951, a person convicted of a
criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently
disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 nor 2
30. Consider the following statements:
1. The
president of India can summon a session of the parliament at such place as
he/she thinks fit.
2. The
constitution of India provides for three sessions of the parliament in a year,
but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
3. There
is no minimum number of days that the parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Aadhaar
metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
2. State
cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar
data
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance
products
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits
funded out of the consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3 only
32. Rajya sabha has equal powers with Lok sabha
in
a. the matter of creating new All India services
b. amending the constitution
c. the removal of the government
d. making cut motions
33. With reference to the funds under Members of
Parliament Local Area Development scheme (MPLADS), which of the following
statements are correct?
1. MPLADS
funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for
health, education, etc
2. A
specified portion of each MPs fund must benefit SC/ST populations
3. MPLADS
funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried
forward to the next year
4. The district authority must inspect at least
10% of all works under implementation every year
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
34. Which one of the following categories of
Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of
discrimination?
a. Right against Exploitation
b. Right to freedom
c. Right to constitutional remedies
d. Right to equality
35. In India. Separation of judiciary from the
executive is enjoined by
a. the preamble of the constitution
b. a directive principle of state policy
c. the seventh schedule
d. the conventional practice
36. Along with the Budget, the Finance minister
also places other documents before the Parliament which include The Macro
Economic framework Statement. The aforesaid document is presented because this
is mandated by
a. Long standing parliamentary convention
b. Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the
constitution of India
c. Article 113 of the constitution of India
d. Provisions of the Fiscal responsibility and
Budget Management Act, 2003
37. A constitutional government by definition is
a
a. Government by legislature
b. popular government
c. Multi party government
d. Limited government
38. Other than the fundamental Rights, which of
the following parts of the constitution of India reflect/ reflects the
principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of state policy
3. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
39. In India, Legal services Authorities provide
free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?
1. Person with an annual income of less than
Rs.100000
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than
Rs.2,00,000
3. Member of other Backward classes (OBC) with an
annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
4. All senior citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 4 only
40. Consider the following pairs:
International agreement/ set up Subject
1. Alma – ata declaration - Healthcare of the people
2. Hague declaration - Biological and chemical
Weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue - Global climate change
4. Under 2 coalition - Child rights
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
41. With reference to the history of India,
consider the following pairs:
1. Anurang – Incharge of treasury of the state
2. Banian – Indian agent of the East India Company
3. Mirasidar – Designated revenue payer to the
state
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2
and 3
42. With reference to the religious history of
India, Consider the following statements:
1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot if
Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas
fostered the Mahayana Buddhism
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
43. Which of the following statements correctly
explains the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of
the nineteenth century?
a. Indian handicrafts were ruined
b. Machines were introduced in the Indian textile
industry in large numbers
c. Railway lines were laid in many parts of the
country
d. Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of
British manufactures
44. Consider the following events in the history
of India:
1. Rise of Prathiharas under king Bhoja
2. Establishment of Pallava power under
Mahendravarman – I
3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka I
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gupta
What is the correct chronological order of the
above events, starting from the earliest time?
a. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
b. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
c. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
d. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
45. Which of the following phrases define the
nature of the “Hundi” generally referred to in the sources of the post – Harsha
period?
a. An advisory issued by the king to his
subordinates
b. A diary to be maintained for daily accounts
c. A bill of exchange
d. An order from the feudal lord to his
subordinates
46. With reference to the book “Desher Katha”
written by sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the
following statements:
1. It warned against the colonial state’s
hypnotic conquest of the mind
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street
plays and folk songs
3. The use of desh by Deuskar was in the specific
context of the region of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
47. Gandhi – Irwin pact included which of the
following?
1. Invitation to congress to participate in the
Round table congress
2. Withdrawal of ordinances promulgated in
connection with the civil disobedience movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for
enquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not
charged with violence
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
48. The vital – vidhvansak, the first monthly
journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
a. Gopal Baba Walangkar
b. Jyothiba Phule
c. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
d. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
49. With reference to the history of India, the
terms “Kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote
a. measurement of land
b. coins of different monetary value
c. classification of urban land
d. religious rituals
50. Who among the following rulers advised his
subjects through this inscription?
“ whosoever praises his religious sect or blames
other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of
glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severly.”
a. Ashoka
b. Samudragupta
c. Harshavardhana
d. Krishnadeva Raya
51. What are the advantages of fertigation in
agriculture?
1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water
is possible
2. Efficient application of Rock phosphate and
all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants
is possible
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical
nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
52. Consider the following minerals:
1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially
designated as major minerals?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
53. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature
(OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26 degree Celsius
isotherm which is 129 meters in the south western Indian Ocean during January –
March.
2. OMT collected during January – March can be
used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or
more than a certain long term mean.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
54. With reference to chemical fertilisers in
India, consider the following statements:
1. At present, the retail price of chemical
fertilisers is market driven and not administered by the Government
2. Ammonia, which is an input of Urea, is
produced from natural gas.
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for
phosphoric acid fertiliser, is a by-product of oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
55. With reference to India’s Desert National
park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts
2. There is no human habitations inside the park
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great
Indian Bustard
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
56. Siachen Glacier is situated to the
a. East of Aksai chin
b. East of Leh
c. North of Gilgit
d. North of Nubra valley
57. With reference to the history of India,
consider the following pairs:
Famous place
Present state
1. Bhilsa - Madhya Pradesh
2. Dwarasamudra - Maharashtra
3. Girinagar - Gujarat
4. Sthanesvara - Uttar Pradesh
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only
58. Consider the following statements:
1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited”
or “critical” by the Central Ground water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection)
Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater rirrigation
in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
59. Consider the following statements:
1. Jet stream occur in the northern hemisphere
only
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is
nearly 10 degree Celsius lesser than that of the surroundings
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
60. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one
has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
a. Corbett
b. Ranthambore
c. Nagarjunasagar – Srisailam
d. Sunderbans
61. If a particular plant species is placed under
Schedule VI of the Wildlife protection act, 1972, what is the implication?
a. A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
b. Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any
circumstances
c. it is a genetically modified crop plant
d. Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the
ecosystem.
62. With reference to the period of Gupta dynasty
in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as
a. Ports handling foreign trade
b. capitals of powerful kingdoms
c. Places of exquisite stone art and architecture
d. Important Buddhist pilgrimage centres
63. What is/are the advantage/advantages of Zero
tillage in agriculture?
1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning
the residue of previous crop
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings,
direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
64. According to India’s National policy on
Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the
production of biofuels?
1. cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
b. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
65. Which one of the following statements best
describes the term “Social Cost of Carbon”?
It is a measure, in monetary value of the
a. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2
emissions in a given year
b. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to
provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels
c. Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt
to live in a new place
d. contribution of an individual person to the
carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
66. With reference to Pulse production in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Black gram can be cultivated as both Kharif
and rabi crop
2. Green – gram alone accounts for nearly half of
pulse production
3. In the last three decades, while the
production of Kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has
decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 1,2 and 3
67. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard
frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost free days and 50 to
100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well – drained soil capable
of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which
one of the following is that crop?
a. cotton
b. Jute
c. Sugar cane
d. Tea
68. With reference to solar water pumps, consider
the following statements:
1. Solar power can be used for running surface
pumps and not for submersible pumps.
2. Solar power can be used for running
centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
69. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation
of sugarcane in India, Consider the following statements:
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made
when bud chip settlings are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main
field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the
germination percentage is better with single – budded setts as compared to
setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts
are directly planted, single- budded setts have better survival as compared to
large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings
prepared from tissue culture
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
70. In the context of India, which of the
following is/are considered to be practice of eco-friendly agriculture?
1. crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. 1,2,3 and 4
71. In India, which of the following can be
considered as Public investment in agriculture?
1. Fixing Minimum support Price for agricultural
produce of all crops
2. Computerisation of primary Agricultural credit
societies
3. Social capital development
4. Free electricity supply to farmers
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking
system
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the
governments
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 5 only
b. 1,3,4 and 5 only
c. 2,3 and 6 only
d. 1,2,3,4,5 and 6
72. What is the importance of the term” interest
coverage ration” of a firm in India?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of
a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a
firm that a bank is going to give loan to
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of
interest coverage ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
73. Which of the following factors/policies were
affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?
1. Minimum support price
2. Government’s trading
3. Government’s stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1,2 and 4 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
74. Consider the following statements:
1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has
consistently increased in the last decade
2. Textiles and textile articles constitute an
important item of trade between India and Bangladesh
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been the
largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
75. In which one of the following groups are all
the four countries members of G20?
a. Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
b. Australia, Canadam Malaysia and New Zealand
c. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
d. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and south Korea
76. Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short
term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?
1. working capital for maintenance of farm assets
2. purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and
mini trucks
3. Consumption requirements of farm households
4. post harvest expenses
5. Construction of family house and setting up of
village cold storage facility
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 5 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 , 4 and 5 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
77. Consider the following statements:
1. The weightage of food in consumer Price Index (CPI)
is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices
of services, which CPI does
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as
its key measures of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following pairs”
River
Flows into
1. Mekong - Andaman Sea
2. Thames
- Irish sea
3. Volga - Caspian sea
4. Zambez - Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
79. Consider the following statements:
1. In the case of all cerelas, pulses and
oilseeds, the procurement at Minimum support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any
state/UT of India.
2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is
fixed in any state/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 nor 2
80. With reference to the Indian economy,
consider the following statements:
1. commercial paper is a short term unsecured
promissory note
2. Certificate of Deposit is a long term
instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation
3. Call money is a short term finance used for
interbank transactions
4. Zero coupon Bonds are the interest bearing
short term bonds issued by the scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2, 3, and 4 only
81. With reference to Foreign Direct Investment
in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristics?
a. It is the investment through capital
instruments essentially in a listed company
b. It is a largely non debt creating capital flow
c. It is the investment which involves debt
servicing
d. It is the investment made by foreign
institutional investors in the Government securities
82. With reference to the international trade of
India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its
merchandise imports
2. India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals,
fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years
3. India’s exports of services are more than its
imports of services
4. India suffers from an overall trade/current
account deficit
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only
83. The term West Texas intermediate sometimes
found in news, refers to a grade of
a. crude oil
b. Bullion
c. Rare Earth elements
d. Uranium
84. In the context of the Indian economy, non –
financial debt includes which of the following?
1. House loans owed by households
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards
3. Treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
85. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept
under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not?
a. Some use uranium and others use thorium
b. Some use imported Uranium and others use
domestic supplies
c. Some are operated by foreign enterprises and
others are operated by domestic enterprises
d. Some are state – owned and others are
privately owned
86. With reference to Trade Related Investment
Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by
foreign investors are prohibited
2. They apply to investment measures related to
trade in both goods and services
3. They are not concerned with the regulation of
foreign investment
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
87. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist
monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?
1. Cut and optimize the statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the marginal standing facility rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo rate
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
88. With reference to the Indian economy after
the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:
1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004-05
prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the
workforce steadily increased
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy
increased
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
89. Consider the following statements:
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the
agriculture sector, District central cooperative banks (DCCBs) deliver more
credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs
is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
90. In India, under Cyber insurance for
individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition
to payments for the loss of funds and other benefits?
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in
case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant
wilfully damages it, if proved so
3. Cost of hiring a specialised consultant to
minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4. Cost of defence in the court of law if any
third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 4 only
b. 1, 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1,2,3 and 4
91. With reference to the cultural history of
India, consider the following pairs:
1. Parivrajaka – Renunciant and wanderer
2. Shramana – Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka – Lay follower of Buddhism
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
92. With reference to Indian elephants, consider
the following statements:
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till
the age of 40 years only
4. Among the states in India, the highest
elephant population is in kerala
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only
93. Which of the following protected areas are
located in cauvery basin?
1. Nagarhole National park
2. Papikonda national park
3. Satyamangalam Tiger reserve
4. Wayanand Wildlife sanctuary
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1,3 and 4 only
d. 1,2,3, and 4
94. With reference to India’s bidoversity, Ceylon
frogmouth, coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart
are
a. Birds
b. Primates
c. Reptiles
d. Amphibians
95. Which one of the following protected areas is
well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer
(Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
a. Kanha national park
b. Manas national park
c. Mudumulai wildlife sanctuary
d. Tal Chhapar wildlife sanctuary
96. Steel Slag can be the material for which of
the following?
1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
97. Which of the following are the most likely
places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
1. Askot wildlife sanctuary
2. Gangotri National park
3. Kishanpur wildlife sanctuary
4. Manas national park
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
98. In rural road construction, the use of which
of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to
reduce carbon footprint?
1. copper slag
2. cold mix asphaltic technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 4 and 5 only
d. 1 and 5 only
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur
dioxides of nitrogen into the environment
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
100. What is the use of biochar in farming?
1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing
medium in vertical farming
2. When bichar is a part of the growing medium,
it promotes the growth of nitrogen – fixing microorganisms
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium,
it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3